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Talk:Genealogy (Foucault)

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Representative

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I don't think that it's necessarily correct to refer to Foucault as a 'representative of postmodernism'- I think the relationship of his thought to postmodernism is far more complex and problematic than that sentence would suggest. Does anyone else agree?

I don't think it's necessarily incorrect, but it's definitely not the best way to say it. Foucault's thought is generally associated with postmodernism and post-structuralism, but he is not necessarily a "representative" of postmodernism. (Oh, remember to sign your comments!) Rwclark 05:18, 17 October 2006 (UTC)[reply]


It should be kept in mind that Foucault did not identify with any movement or intellectual field known as "postmodernism", that he eschewed the term as well as 'post-structuralism' on several occasions and that he had his own labels for his thought. He shouldn't be wantonly labeled as postmodernist. It should be contextualized imo. Afghan Historian (talk) 18:16, 26 January 2010 (UTC)[reply]